Question #10c64

1 Answer
Dec 12, 2015

Consider the following image of the scenario
enter image source here

We know from second law of motion the acceleration of the COM is given by-
#mgsinx-f=ma_{cm}#
Where #a_{cm}# is the acceleration of center of mass

Calculating moments about COM, we get
#f r= I\alpha#
Where r is the distance from the center where the friction is acting, I is moment of inertia and #\alpha# is the angular scceleration about the COM.

Here, we use the fact that the object is rolling without slipping, therefore:
#a_{cm}=\alpha r#

Substituting this in the equation above we get
#f r= I \frac{a_{cm}}{r}#
#f = I \frac{a_{cm}}{r^2}#

Substituting #a_{cm}# from first equation into the equation above
#a_{cm}= \frac{mgsinx-f}{m}#
#f= \frac{I}{mr^2}(mgsinx-f)#
#f(1+\frac{I}{mr^2})=mgsinx\frac{I}{mr^2}#
#f= \frac{mgsinx\frac{I}{mr^2}} {1+\frac{I}{mr^2}}#

Dividing numerator and denominator by #\frac{I}{mr^2}# we get
#f= \frac{mgsinx} {1+\frac{mr^2}{I}}#
Hence proved.