Question #931da

2 Answers
Jan 18, 2016

The standard for this type of problem is the universal wave equation, #v=f lamda#, except for this particular question there is a shortcut.

Explanation:

Bear with me, I will be brief:
Speed is distance over time, so time is distance over speed:

#t=d/v#

in the case of a wave, the distance travelled is the length of the wave, or the wavelength, #lamda#.
so

#t=lamda/v#

and from the universal wave equation, #v=f lamda#
so

#t=lamda/(f lamda)#
and
#t=cancel lamda/(f cancel lamda) = 1/f#

Which, if you stop to thing about it makes perfect sense, since the time for one wave to pass by is the period of the wave #T#, and

#T=1/f#

So the only value you actually need to solve this is the frequency!

Jan 18, 2016

The time taken for a wave to pass a point is the period, #T (s)#, which is simply the inverse of the frequency, #f (Hz = s^-1)#. In this case, #T=1/f = 1/300 = 0.00333 s#

Explanation:

Waves have three characteristics: velocity #v (ms^-1)#, wavelength #lambda (m)# and frequency #f (Hz)#.

These characteristics are related by the formula: #v=flambda#

The unit of frequency, hertz #Hz# is 'per second': number of waves passing a point each second, and is #s^-1# in SI units.

In this question, we want the inverse of the frequency. If 300 waves pass a point in 1 second, how many seconds does it take for 1 wave to pass the same point? The answer is #1/f=1/300=0.00333 s#.