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Question #fba02

1 Answer

Feb 8, 2017

1

Explanation:

If #Lim h->0# then #(f(1+h)-f(1))/h# is f'(1)

Since f(x)= x-2, f(1+h)= 1+h-2= h-1
Also f(1) = 1-2= -1

Hence #(f(1+h)-f(1))/h# =#((h-1)- (-1))/h = h/h# =1

f'(1) =1. The slope is therefore 1

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