Question #35453

1 Answer
Apr 20, 2017

Because, for any given y value, there are 2 possible x values, a quadratic equation does not have an inverse; more about this in the explanation.

Explanation:

To formally attempt an inverse, we substitute #f^-1(x)# for every x into the given function:

#f(f^-1(x)) = (f^-1(x))^2-3/2#

By definition, the left side becomes x:

#x = (f^-1(x))^2-3/2#

Add #3/2# to both sides:

#x+ 3/2= (f^-1(x))^2#

When we take the square root of both sides, we must split into 2 equations:

#f^-1(x)= sqrt(x+ 3/2) and f^-1(x)= -sqrt(x+ 3/2)#

This means that (except for #x = 3/2#) every value of x maps to two values. An inverse must map a single y value to a single x value in the same way that a function must map a single x value to a single y value. Therefore, no inverse.