How do you evaluate #\int _ { \frac { \pi } { 3} } ^ { \frac { \pi } { 3} } \frac { d x } { 1- \sin x }#?

1 Answer
May 8, 2017

Recall that #int_a^bf(x)dx# is the area under the graph of #f# from #x=a# to #x=b#.

So, when we have #int_a^af(x)dx#, this is the "area" under #f# from #x=a# to #x=a#, which isn't anything at all: it's an impossibly thin slice of the function, so thin, that it's area doesn't exist such that #int_a^af(x)dx=0#.

We could also justify this with the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, which says that #int_a^bf'(x)dx=f(b)-f(a)#. When the bounds are the same, we see that #int_a^af'(x)dx=f(a)-f(a)=0#.

So, without having to find the antiderivative of #1/(1-sinx)#, we see that:

#int_(pi/3)^(pi/3)dx/(1-sinx)=0#