How can you prove that #1/(0!)+1/(1!)(n-1)+1/(2!)(n-1)(n-2)+1/(3!)(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)+... = 2^(n-1)# ?
1 Answer
May 24, 2017
Please see below.
Explanation:
Binomial expansion of
=
where
Hence
=
=
Hence
=