Question #f9a4b

1 Answer
Aritra G.
Sep 21, 2017

#MT^(-2)A^(-1)#

Explanation:

Magnetic induction is defined from the Lorentz force law.

In scalar form,

#F = qvB#
#implies [B] = [[F]]/([q][v])#

Now,

#[F] = MLT^(-2)#
#[q] = AT#
#[v] = LT^(-1)#

Substituting these,

#[B] = (MLT^(-2))/(ATLT^(-1))#
#implies [B] = MT^(-2)A^(-1)#

Related questions
Impact of this question
1249 views around the world
You can reuse this answer
Creative Commons License