Prove that for every #x>0,x/(1+x^2)<tan^(-1)(x)<x#?
2 Answers
Explanation:
We have,
Let,
i.e.
Again let,
i.e.
From
i.e.
Kindly refer to the Explanation.
Explanation:
We use the following Form of the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) :
If
This version of MVT can be easily proved from its usual version.
So, let us skip it it and proceed to prove the desired inequality.
Consider
We know that the conditions of MVT are fulfilled by
Now multiplying
Utilising this in
Multiplying this by
Adding
Inverting,
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