# lim_(n->oo)(1+1/n)^n = # ?
3 Answers
Let
It is obvious that:
We'll show that sequence
Using Bernoulli's inequality
So, the sequence
Using Bernoulli's inequality again:
it follows that
Using inequality of arithmetic and geometric means:
it follows:
and
It follows that
Finally,
Let some value
#lnx = ln(lim_(n->oo) (1+1/n)^n)#
#lnx = lim_(n->oo)(nln(1+1/n))#
#lnx = lim_(n->oo)(ln(1+1/n)/(1/n))#
By inspection, we've converted the right side into a
#lnx = lim_(n->oo)((1/(1+1/n)*cancel(-1/n^2))/cancel(-1/n^2))#
#lnx = lim_(n->oo)(1/(1+1/n))#
wherein the
#lnx = lim_(nrarroo)(1/(1+0))#
#lnx=lim_(nrarroo)1#
#lnx=1#
Thus, we undo the natural logarithm to get:
#color(blue)(lim_(n->oo) (1+1/n)^n)#
#= e^(ln(lim_(n->oo) (1+1/n)^n))#
# = e^(lnx) = x = e^1 = color(blue)(e)# .
so
Finally
and