# Question #e4eae

##### 4 Answers

By the law of simple pendulum we know

Let the time period of the 1st pendulum having effective length

And the time period of the 2nd pendulum having effective length

So by the law

Let the two pendulum starts oscillation in same phase and after a minimum time t sec they again become in the same phase. During this t sec the 1st pendulum oscillates

So

Comparing (1) and (2)

So 1st pendulum will oscillate 21 times and 2nd one will oscillate 20 times before they come to same phase again.

But if we take the ratio in inverted way as follows we get different result.

Then

Here 1st pendulum will oscillate 20 times and 2nd one will oscillate 19 times before they come to same phase again.

The graph given by respected Gio approximately matches with the second result but does not exactly match with any one.So it may be inferred that the pendulum never exactly comes to the same phase again.

Don't think they ever need to get back in phase; but if they do, an iterative computer solution is needed and that will produce an answer that depends on how much rounding you allow to happen.

#### Explanation:

The period of a simple pendulum [small angle of oscillation assumed] is:

From just plugging the numbers into the period formula [I mirrored this is a spreadsheet so as at least to preserve Excel standard rounding accuracy, shorter numbers are re-produced here]:

To make it easier, imagine 2 runners racing round a tracking starting on the starting line at

The faster completes a lap in

When

Turning to the pendulum, if **complete** oscillations of

That happens at time

However

Plotted it on Desmos and they're not matching up as being in phase

Not sure where to go from here. I have asked Wolfram to solve the oscillation as:

...but it's refusing to play along.

Hi dk_ch below are the Excel results:

#### Explanation:

I tried plotting the oscillations as cos functions.

Time period of a pendulum is given by the expression

and

LCM of both time periods will give the time when both will be in unison (phase) again.

LCM of

As such the both pendulums will be in phase again after

During this time both pendulums will have completed different oscillations, which can be calculated from the data above.

This would be approximate value.