Question

Question #c27a5

Answer 1

see below.

Explanation:

You can't prove it, because it isn't true.

Let `x=pi/2`

`1/2sin^2(pi/2)=1/2cos^2(pi/2)`

`1/2=0`

`:.`

`1/2sin^2(x)!=1/2cos^2(x)`