Question #ceb2c

1 Answer
Oct 23, 2017

I would say, economic recession and social unreast fuelled by nationalist's demands.

Explanation:

Taking as examples the two nations that embraced Fascism in an effective way, Italy and Germany, we can see that both nations, at the moment of the establishment of Fascism as their ruling ideology, were riddled by:

1) Economic Recession: Italy and Germany, after First World War and the Great Recession, had a terrible economic situation characterized by enormous inflation, unemployment and widespread poverty;

2) Nationalistic Demands: both nations felt robbed by the treaty of peace following WWI in particular of land and wanted to have concessions as part of their "righteous" demands (that had to be met even with the use of force).

Fascism promised better economic conditions and expansionism to obtain what the treaty took or didn't deliver.

There is a third example of a society where Fascism became the ruling ideology: Spain, but I do not think Franco (the leader of the Fascists) would have been able to gain power without the help from Italy and Germany. So I think that Spain is a slight different case. It represents a Reaction to a democratically elected leftish government. This situation is representative of a Coup d'etat or Golpe similar to the one, in recent times, of Chile where General Pinochet eliminated, with the use of force, the democratically elected government of Salvador Allende.