Question

Question #444a0

Answer 1

Yes we can definitely prove that
`tan(x+(3pi)/4)=(tanx-1)/(tanx+1)`

Explanation:

here' how:
we know that,
`tan(alpha+beta)=(tanalpha+tanbeta)/(1-tanalpha.tanbeta`
`rArrtan(x+(3pi)/4)=(tanx+tan((3pi)/4))/(1-tanx.tan((3pi)/4)`
since `tan((3pi)/4)=-1`
`rArr(tanx+(-1))/(1-tanx(-1))rArr(tanx-1)/(tanx+1)`
Hence,proved