Question #39aa9

1 Answer
Dec 29, 2017

#x=pi/4+k * pi# for all #k in ZZ#
(see below for possible additional solution)

Explanation:

If we assume that #"cost"(x) != 0#
then
#color(white)("XXX")"cost"(x)="cost"(x)xxtan(x)#
implies
#color(white)("XXX")tan(x)=1#

#color(white)("XXX")rarr x=pi/4#, for #x# in Q I and #pi/4+kpi# i general.

With no indication of what the #cost# function is, it seems reasonable to assume #"cost"(x)!=0# in order to derive at least a partial solution.

However, you may have meant #cos(x)# instead of #"cost"(x)#
in which case we should allow for
#color(white)("XXX")cos(x)=0#
with the general solutions
#color(white)("XXX")x=pi/2+k * pi, k in ZZ#