For question a, why do we use cos, where does it come from?

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2 Answers
Apr 24, 2018

N/A

Apr 24, 2018

(a) # BC = 8cos theta#
(b) # "Area" = 16(cos theta+1)sin theta #

The maximum area is #12 sqrt(3) #

Explanation:

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The vertical from #O# bisects #BC#, let us call this point #E#

#angle BCO# and #angle COD# are corresponding angles thus:

# theta =angle COD =angle ECO =angle AOB =angle EBO#

Part (a):

By elementary trigonometry, as #OCE# is a right angle triangle:

# cos (angleOCE) = (CE)/(OC) #

# :. cos theta = (CE)/4 #

# :. CE = 4cos theta #

And, #BC = 2EC #, so:

# BC = 8cos theta#

Part (b):

The radius of the circle is #OC=4#

By elementary trigonometry, as #OCE# is a right angle triangle:

# sin (angleOCE) = (OE)/(OC) #

# :. OE = 4sin theta #

Using the formula for the area of a trapezium, #A=1/2(a+b)h# we can compute the area:

# A = 1/2(BC+AB)(OE) #

# \ \ \ = 1/2(8cos theta+8)(4sin theta) #

# \ \ \ = 16(cos theta+1)sin theta #

A maximum area occurs when we have a critical point of the derivative:

# (dA)/(d theta) = 16{(cos theta+1)costheta+(-sintheta)sintheta} #
# \ \ \ \ \ \ = 16(cos^2 theta+costheta-sin^2theta) #

The derivative vanishes when:

# (dA)/(d theta) = 0 => cos^2 theta+costheta-sin^2theta = 0#

# :. cos^2 theta+costheta-(1-cos^2theta) = 0 #
# :. cos^2 theta+costheta-1+ cos^2theta = 0 #
# :. 2cos^2 theta+costheta-1 = 0 #
# :. (2costheta-1)(costheta+1) = 0 #
# :. cos theta=1/2 # or #cos theta = -1 #

We require an acute angle, #theta#,, so we only consider the solution #cos theta=1/2 # yielding #theta=60^o#

When #theta=60^o# we get:

# A = 16(cos 60^o +1)sin 60^o #

# \ \ \ = 16(1/2 +1) sqrt(3)/2 #

# \ \ \ = 8(3/2) sqrt(3) #

# \ \ \ = 12 sqrt(3) #

We can perform a quick sanity check by considering the area of the semicircle, given by #1/2pir^2 = 8pi ~~ 25.1# and comparing against our solution of #12sqrt(3) ~~ 20.8#, which would appear to be feasible.