# How do you prove #tan^2x/(Secx+1)+1 = secx#?

##### 2 Answers

Apr 15, 2015

Oct 20, 2016

For reasons explained in the video below, it turns out that:

Therefore:

Now, due to the FOIL rule (first, outer, inner, last)...

All of the information above *combined* ultimately means that...

*You can now get rid of (secx+1) at the top and bottom of the fraction. When the numerator and denominator of a fraction are both the same, providing they aren't both zeros, what you get is 1.

And here is your proof.