Question #aa422

Mar 3, 2016

No, it is not. Try it again, and pay attention to the formula and the math.

Explanation:

The ideal gas laws (Charles' Law) state:

$\frac{{P}_{1} \cdot {V}_{1}}{T} _ 1 = \frac{{P}_{2} \cdot {V}_{2}}{T} _ 2$

Where ${P}_{1} {,}_{2}$ are pressures – units don't matter in this case as long as they are consistent, because this is a ratio.
${V}_{1} {,}_{2}$ are the corresponding volumes in Liters (also really independent of units)
${T}_{1} {,}_{2}$ are the temperatures in degrees Kelvin (REQUIRED to be in 'K)