How do you prove #(a o+ b) o+ (~ a & ~ b) = 1# ?

1 Answer
Mar 8, 2017

Answer:

See explanation...

Explanation:

If I understand your notation correctly, it is what I would express as:

#(a vv b) vv (not a ^^ not b) = top#

If either of #a# or #b# is true, then #(a vv b)# is true and hence:

#(a vv b) vv (not a ^^ not b) = top#

If neither of #a# or #b# is true, then #(not a ^^ not b)# is true and hence:

#(a vv b) vv (not a ^^ not b) = top#

So under any combination of truth values for #a# and #b#, the given expression is true.