Question #e4341

1 Answer
Aug 10, 2017

Answer:

Possibly yes, possibly not quite - read on for more.

Explanation:

Hello Luz,

You have #4# cups, which is #1# quart, so you have #0.25# gallons. But, there are two different measurement systems that use the term gallon. There are US gallons and there are Imperial gallons. In both systems, there are #16# cups per gallon. So it depends on whether your cups are US cups or Imperial cups.

If that is US gallons, then

#"1 gallon = 3.7854 liters"#

So, converting to liters:

#0.25 cancel("gallons") * "3.7854 liters"/(1 cancel("gallon")) = "0.946 liters"#

Your #4# cups give you a shortage of about #5%#. That is very likely close enough.

If that is Imperial gallons, then

#"1 gallon = 4.5461 liters"#.

So, converting to litres:

#0.25 cancel("gallons") * "4.5461 litres"/(1 cancel("gallon")) = "1.14 liters"#

Your #4# cups give you an excess of #14%#.

If you spell the volume unit in the recipe liters, your cups are probably US cups. If you spell the volume unit in the recipe litres, your cups are probably Imperial cups.

I hope this helps,
Steve