Question #83dea

1 Answer
Nov 30, 2017

The value is #1#.

Explanation:

First, #cos^-1# is the inverse function of #cos#.
To find #cos^-1(sqrt(2)/2)#, solve #costheta=sqrt(2)/2, thetain(0,pi)#. The solution is #theta=pi/4#.

Therefore,
#tan(cos^-1(sqrt(2)/2))=tan(pi/4)=1#.