# Question #8b215

Dec 11, 2017

See below

#### Explanation:

I don't really have time to write a proper answer (have to do homework) but the short answer is that:

$\frac{1}{x}$ tends to $0$ as $x$ approaches infinity.
A quick example:
$\frac{1}{1} = 1$
$\frac{1}{2} = 0.5$
$\frac{1}{3} = 0.333$
$\frac{1}{4} = 0.25$
$\frac{1}{5} = 0.2$
$\frac{1}{10} = 0.1$
$\frac{1}{100} = 0.01$

Therefore, this problem ultimately becomes

$1 + 0$
which is obviously $1$.