A regular polygon can be divided into a finite number of triangles the sum of whose area is the area of the polygon. If we do the same with a circle of radius #r#, treating it as a polygon with #oo# sides, does that mean #oo xx 0 = 2pir^2# ?

2 Answers
Jan 26, 2018

No

Explanation:

First off, you got the area of the circle right, and comparing it to the area of the regular polygon, but the area of the polygon is not #oo xx 0#.

A regular polygon can be split up into isoceles triangles, where the number of isosceles triangles equals the number of sides of the polygon.

#"Area of a triangle" = 1/2ab sinC#

#a=b=1# (for a circle with a radius of 1 unit)

#C=360/n or (2pi)/n#

#"Total area of triangles"=(nsin(360/n))/2 or (nsin((2pi)/n))/2#

#"Total area of triangles"~~"Area of circle"#

#(nsin(360/n))/2~~pi# (using degrees)
#(nsin((2pi)/n))/2~~pi# (using radians)

(For a circle with a radius of 1 unit, #pir^2=pi#)

We know that for small values of #theta#, #sintheta~~theta#

So:
#sin(360/n)~~(2pi)/n#
#sin((2pi)/n)~~(2pi)/n#

#lim_(n->oo)(nsin(360/n))/2=pi#
#lim_(n->oo)(nsin((2pi)/n))/2=pi#

A visual proof that uses the angle instead of a number of whole triangles can be found (using degrees) here, or with radians here

Jan 26, 2018

No, but...

Explanation:

Using transfinite and infinitesimal arithmetic...

If you divide the circle into #omega# segments with each arc of length #(2pir)/omega#, then the area of each segment is:

#1/2 xx "base" xx "height" = 1/2 * (2pir)/omega * r + O(1/omega^2) = (pir^2)/omega+O(1/omega^2)#

So the total area of the circle is:

#omega * ((pir^2)/omega+O(1/omega^2)) = pir^2+O(1/omega)#

the standard part of which is #pir^2#

Of course a more modest approximation is given with a finite number of segments...

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