Apart from 2, 3 and 3, 5 is there any pair of consecutive Fibonacci numbers which are both prime?

1 Answer
Oct 15, 2016

No

Explanation:

The Fibonacci sequence is defined by:

F_0 = 0

F_1 = 1

F_n = F_(n-2) + F_(n-1)" " for n > 1

Starting with F_0, it begins:

0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, 89, 144, 233, 377, 610, 987,...

Prove by induction that:

F_(m+n) = F_(m-1)F_n+F_mF_(n+1)

for any m, n >= 1

Base cases

F_(m+color(blue)(1)) = F_(m-1) + F_m = F_(m-1)F_(color(blue)(1)) + F_m F_(color(blue)(1)+1)

F_(m+color(blue)(2)) = F_(m+1) + F_m = F_(m-1) + 2F_m = F_(m-1)F_color(blue)(2) + F_mF_(color(blue)(2)+1)

Induction step

F_(m+k+1) = F_(m+k-1) + F_(m+k)

color(white)(F_(m+k+1)) = F_(m-1)F_(k-1) + F_mF_k + F_(m-1)F_k + F_mF_(k+1)

color(white)(F_(m+k+1)) = F_(m-1)(F_(k-1) + F_k) + F_m(F_k +F_(k+1))

color(white)(F_(m+k+1)) = F_(m-1)F_(k+1) + F_m F_(k+2)

square

Hence:

F_(2n) = F_(n+n) = F_(n-1)F_n + F_nF_(n+1) = F_n(F_(n-1) + F_(n+1))

So: F_(2n) is divisible by F_n for any n >= 1.

If n = 2 then F_2 = 1 so that does not imply that F_4 is composite - it is actually prime. But for any larger values of n, F_(2n) is composite.

So for any two consecutive Fibonacci numbers after (F_4, F_5) = (3, 5), since one of them will have even index greater than 4, it will be divisible by an earlier non-unit Fibonacci number greater than F_2.

e.g. F_22 = 17711 is divisible by F_11 = 89