# Does a_n=sin(n)/n  converge?

Because $- 1 \le \sin n \le 1$ hence $- \frac{1}{n} \le \sin \frac{n}{n} \le \frac{1}{n}$ hence
$\frac{1}{n} \to 0$ as n goes to infinity then $0 \le \sin \frac{n}{n} \le 0$ as n goes to