Does the sign change either side of a point of inflection?

This is really confusing me. I have seen websites where it says the sign does change, but my text book says, it's a point of inflection if the sign dosen't change. I have included a copy of the page in the text book. Maybe I'm misunderstanding the book, but I don't think so.
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1 Answer
Jan 1, 2018

Please see below.

Explanation:

The question is incomplete.

"Does the sign change" leaves out the sign of what?

At an inflection point the sign of #y# may or may not change.

The sign of #y'# does not change.

The sign of #y''# does change.

In the example your book is using the fact that #y'# does not change sign at #x=0# to conclude that #(0.f(0)) = (0,0)# is an inflection point.

Looking at the graph, we can see that the sign of #y# does change at #(0.0)#.
Checking the second derivative, #y'' = 30x^3(5x-8)#, we see that the sign of #y''# does change at #(0.0)#.

Additional Information

The sign of #y''# also changes at #x=8/5# but #y'# is not #0# at #x=8/5#.

In some definitions of inflection points #(8/5,f(8/5))# is not an inflection point (because #y'# is not #0# at #x=8/5#) but

in others it is (because #y''# changes sign at #x=8/5#).

Check your textbook's definition of inflection point.