How do you evaluate the integral #int 1/(1+x^2)dx# from 0 to #oo#?

2 Answers
Sep 29, 2016

#pi/2#.

Explanation:

We know that #int1/(1+x^2)dx=arc tanx+C.#

Then, by the Fundamental Principle of Definite Integral,

#:. I= int_0^oo 1/(1+x^2)dx=lim_(yrarroo) int_0^y 1/(1+x^2)dx#

#=lim_(yrarroo)[arc tanx]_0^y#

#=lim_(yrarroo) [arc tany-arc tan0]#

Since, the #arc tan# fun. is continuous on #RR#, we have,

#I=arc tan{lim_(yrarroo) y}-0#

#=pi/2#.

Sep 29, 2016

I got #pi/2#.

Interesting enough, if you realize that #1/(1+x^2)# is even, you could further say that #int_(-oo)^(oo) 1/(1+x^2)dx = pi#.


Let us first prove that #d/(dx)[arctanx] = 1/(1+x^2)#.

#arctanx = y#

#x = tany#

Now, we perform implicit differentiation to get

#1 = sec^2y((dy)/(dx))#

#(dy)/(dx) = 1/(sec^2y)#

#= 1/(1+tan^2y)#

Since #tany = x#, #tan^2y = x^2#.

#=> d/(dx)[arctanx] = 1/(1 + x^2)#

Therefore, if you recall that #int (dy)/(dx) = y#, then you should find that you have

#color(blue)(int_(0)^(oo) 1/(1+x^2)dx)#

#= |[arctanx]|_(0)^(oo)#

#= lim_(x->oo) arctanx - lim_(x->0) arctanx#

If you think about it, what happens as #x->oo# for #arctanx#? If #arctan(oo) = u#, then #oo = tanu#. #tanu# approaches #oo# at #pm pi/2#. But since we are in #[0,oo)#, we must be talking about #pi/2#.

Therefore, #lim_(x->oo) arctanx = pi/2#.

Further, for #arctan(0) = u#, #0 = tanu = (sinu)/(cosu)#. When #u = 0#, it is sure that #sinu = 0# and #cosu ne 0#. Inverting the graph of #tanu# yields a graph with asymptotes at #pm pi/2# and which intersects #(0,0)#.

Thus, #lim_(x->0) arctanx = 0#.

Now we'd get:

#=> pi/2 - 0#

#= color(blue)(pi/2)#