How to demonstrate that #int_(-a)^af(x)dx=0# for #f#-odd?

1 Answer
Apr 21, 2017

By definition:

#f# is an odd function #iff f(-x)=-f(x) #

Using this definition then we note that if #f# is odd then

# f(-x)=-f(x) => f(x) = -f(-x) #

Using a property of integrals:

# int_a^b \ f(x) \ dx = int_a^c \ f(x) \ dx + int_c^b \ f(x) \ dx #

we can write the integral we seek to evaluate as

# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = int_(-a)^(0) \ f(x) \ dx + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
# " " = int_(-a)^(0) \ -f(-x) \ dx + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#

For the first integral we can perform simply substitution, let:

# u=-x => (du)/dx = -1 # and #u=-x#

And we can change the limits of integration: When:

# { (x=-a), (x=0) :} => { (u=a), (u=0) :}#

So the integral can be rewritten as:

# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = int_(a)^(0) \ -f(u) \ (-1)du + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
# " " = int_(a)^(0) \ f(u) \ du + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#

And using another property of integrals (corollary of of the earlier property)

# int_a^b \ f(x) \ dx = - int_b^a \ f(x) \ dx #

We can write

# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = -int_(0)^(a) \ f(u) \ du + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#

And finally noting that definite integral are independent of the integration variable that is :

# int_a^b \ f(x) \ dx = int_a^b \ f(u) \ du #

we can write:

# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = -int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
# " " = 0 \ \ \ # QED