How to demonstrate that #int_(-a)^af(x)dx=0# for #f#-odd?
1 Answer
By definition:
#f# is an odd function#iff f(-x)=-f(x) #
Using this definition then we note that if
# f(-x)=-f(x) => f(x) = -f(-x) #
Using a property of integrals:
# int_a^b \ f(x) \ dx = int_a^c \ f(x) \ dx + int_c^b \ f(x) \ dx #
we can write the integral we seek to evaluate as
# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = int_(-a)^(0) \ f(x) \ dx + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
# " " = int_(-a)^(0) \ -f(-x) \ dx + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
For the first integral we can perform simply substitution, let:
# u=-x => (du)/dx = -1 # and#u=-x#
And we can change the limits of integration: When:
# { (x=-a), (x=0) :} => { (u=a), (u=0) :}#
So the integral can be rewritten as:
# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = int_(a)^(0) \ -f(u) \ (-1)du + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
# " " = int_(a)^(0) \ f(u) \ du + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
And using another property of integrals (corollary of of the earlier property)
# int_a^b \ f(x) \ dx = - int_b^a \ f(x) \ dx #
We can write
# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = -int_(0)^(a) \ f(u) \ du + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
And finally noting that definite integral are independent of the integration variable that is :
# int_a^b \ f(x) \ dx = int_a^b \ f(u) \ du #
we can write:
# int_(-a)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx = -int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx + int_(0)^(a) \ f(x) \ dx#
# " " = 0 \ \ \ # QED