Howcome 1/x^2 equals -2/x^3? According to the calculator I use, it utilizes the power rule...-But how does that work when we have 1/something and not x^something? Thanks ahead for taking the time to assist :)

2 Answers
Feb 26, 2018

Please see below. (Short answer: because 1/x^something = x^minus something.)

Explanation:

First thing: #1/x^2# is NOT equal to #(-2)/x^3#.

The derivative of #1/x^2# is equal to #(-2)/x^3#.

Second:

We can write #y = 1/x^2# as #y = x^(-2)#.

When we apply the power rule we get

#y' = -2x^(-2-1) = -2x^(-3)#

Now we can rewrite that as

# = -2 * 1/x^3 = (-2)/x^3#

Bonus

Can you see why the derivative of #y = 1/x^5# is

#y' = (-5)/x^6#?

Feb 26, 2018

By the rule of indices:

#1/x^n =x^(-n) #

We know that for positive integers, #n in NN# that:

# d/dx x^n =nx^(n-1) #

Now for the case where #n# is a negative integer, put #m=-n# so that #m in NN#, then we have:

# d/dx 1/x^n = d/dx x^(-n) #
# \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ = d/dx x^(m) #
# \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ = mx^(m-1) # (as #m in NN#)
# \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ = -nx^(-n-1) #

Proving that

# d/dx x^n =nx^(n-1) AA n in ZZ^+#

Which then gives us the result with #n=-2#, that:

# d/dx 1/x^2 = (-2)x^(-3) = -2/x^3# QED