Question

If `f(x)=1/x, xcancel(=)0` then prove that `fof^(-1)= f^(-1)of`?

Answer 1

See below.

Explanation:

If `f(x)=1/x` then `f^-1(x)=1/x`

`f@f^-1=f(f^-1(x))=1/(1/x)=x`

`f^-1@f=f^-1(f(x))=1/(1/x)=x`

`f@f^-1=f^-1@f=x`