If f(x) = cosx * cos2x * cos4x * cos8x * cos16xf(x)=cosx⋅cos2x⋅cos4x⋅cos8x⋅cos16x then f'(pi/4) is ??
1 Answer
Explanation:
We have:
f(x) = cosx * cos2x * cos4x * cos8x * cos16x
We could use the product rule with
We can save a lot of unnecessary computation by using the following:
x=pi/4 => { (cosx,sqrt(2)/2), (cos2x,0), (cos4x,-1), (cos8x,1), (cos16x,1) :} \ \ \ \ \ and{ (sinx,sqrt(2)/2), (sin2x,1), (sin4x,0), (sin8x,0), (sin16x,0) :}
And when we apply the product rule we will get a function of the form:
f'(x) = (cosx)' \ cos2x \ cos4x \ cos8x \ cos16x +
" " cosx \ (cos2x)' \ cos4x \ cos8x \ cos16x +
" " cosx \ cos2x \ (cos4x)' \ cos8x \ cos16x +
" " cosx \ cos2x \ cos4x \ (cos8x)' \ cos16x +
" " cosx \ cos2x \ cos4x \ cos8x \ (cos16x)'
And so with
So the only non-zero terms of consequence are:
{: f'(x) ]_(x=pi/6) = cosx \ (cos2x)' \ cos4x \ cos8x \ cos16x
" " = cosx \ (-2sin2x) \ cos4x \ cos8x \ cos16x
" " = sqrt(2)/2 * -2 * -1 * 1 * 1
" " = sqrt(2)
Hence