If the limit of f(x) as x tends to a = L and the limit of g(x) as x tends to a =M Proof that, lim[f(x)-g(x)] as x tends to a = L-M?
As it is written the statement is wrong.
As it is written the statement is wrong.
1 Answer
We have to use the limit definition
Explanation:
Because of the limit definition we know:
Now let's consider any
Since
Since
If we now take
and therefore:
if
That is, the