Nice question in calculas?
prove that
#lne=1#
prove that
3 Answers
I am nit sure it is a proof....but anyway:
Explanation:
From the definition of log:
auch that:
that is, the integrand is equal to the base to the power of the result.
In our case we know that the Natural Logarithm,
so, using our definition of log:
so that:
Show the steps below
Explanation:
show the explanation
Nearly all such proofs are cyclic.
Using Bernoulli's definition , we have:
# e = lim_(n rarr oo) (1+1/n)^n #
If we apply base
# ln e = ln \ lim_(n rarr oo) (1+1/n)^n #
Due to the monotonicity of the logarithm function:
# ln e = lim_(n rarr oo) ln (1+1/n)^n #
Using the rules of logarithms:
# ln e = lim_(n rarr oo) n ln (1+1/n) #
We can simplify by performing a substitution:
# u=1/n iff n=1/u # , and as#n rarr oo => u rarr 0#
Thus:
# ln e = lim_(u rarr 0) 1/u ln (1+u) #
# \ \ \ \ \ = lim_(u rarr 0) (ln (1+u))/u #
This is of an indeterminate for
# ln e = lim_(u rarr 0) (d/du ln (1+u))/(d/du u) #
# \ \ \ \ \ = lim_(u rarr 0) (1/(1+u))/(1) #
# \ \ \ \ \ = 1 \ \ \ # QED