Using the Schrodinger equation, what can we calculate?

1 Answer
Dec 4, 2016

In general, this equation is designed such that a unique Hamiltonian operator and wave function can be specified for a particular system. The most common thing we can obtain from the Schrodinger equation is the energy.

EXAMPLE

For example, take a single particle moving back and forth in a 1-dimensional box:

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We start out with simply:

#hatHpsi = Epsi#

For this system, since the particle is said to move elastically horizontally, there is all kinetic and no potential energy.

The Hamiltonian is specified as:

#hatH = hatK + hatV#

#= -ℏ^2/(2m) grad^2 + V(x)#

where #grad^2 = (d^2)/(dx^2)#, the second derivative with respect to the #x# coordinate, the first overall term is the kinetic energy operator, and the potential is #V(x) = 0#.

OBTAINING THE SECOND-ORDER DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION

Plugging this into the starting equation, we solve for the second-order differential form of the Schrodinger equation for this system:

#-ℏ^2/(2m) d^2/(dx^2)psi(x) = Epsi(x)#

#(d^2psi(x))/(dx^2) = -(2mE)/(ℏ^2)psi(x)#

#bb((d^2psi(x))/(dx^2) + (2mE)/(ℏ^2)psi(x) = 0)#

This has now become a second-order differential equation for what is known as the particle in a box model, where the particle is in a well of infinite potential walls, with a closed interval #[0, a]#.

The above equation can be rewritten in an even more general form:

#(d^2psi(x))/(dx^2) + k^2psi(x) = 0#

SOLVING FOR k BY SETTING BOUNDARY CONDITIONS

The general solution to this situation for the wave function #psi# is:

#psi(x) = Acoskx + Bsinkx#,

where #k = sqrt((2mE)/ℏ^2)#.

The boundary conditions for this system must be set for it to be physically meaningful (the particle must vanish at the boundaries of the system).

In this case, #psi(0) = psi(a) = 0#. The first condition gives:

#psi(0) = Acos(0) + cancel(Bsin(0))^(0)#

In order for the whole thing to go to #0#, we know that #cos(0) = 1#, so we must force the condition by saying that #A = 0#.

The second (consecutive) condition gives:

#psi(a) = Bsin(ka)#

Here, the physically-meaningful and nontrivial solution is that #sin (ka) = 0#, and this is only if #ka = npi#.

USING k TO FIND THE ENERGY

Now if we plug back into the definition of #k#, where we now know that #k = (npi)/a# for this system:

#k = (npi)/a = sqrt((2mE)/(ℏ^2))#

#(n^2pi^2)/a^2 = (2mE)/(ℏ^2)#

#=> color(blue)(E_n = (n^2pi^2ℏ^2)/(2ma^2) = (n^2h^2)/(8ma^2))#

So this is the energy for a particle elastically traveling back and forth in a confined, 1D box.

(Surprisingly, this can be applied to real systems, like butadiene, for example, or other conjugated #pi# systems.)


For completion's sake, as a sidenote, we would also obtain #psi# for this system as:

#psi(x) = Bsin((npix)/a)#

and to get what #B# is, we normalize the wave function to get:

#1 = int_(0)^(a) psi^"*"(x)psi(x)dx#

#= int_(0)^(a)Bsin((npix)/a)Bsin((npix)/a)dx#

#= B^2 int_0^a sin^2((npix)/a)dx#

and eventually get that #B = sqrt(2/a)#, since #psi^2# must give a #100%# probability of finding this particle somewhere in this box.