What is the limit as x approaches infinity of #ln(x)#?

3 Answers
Mar 24, 2015

#lim_(xrarroo)lnx=oo#

To see this, we'll use:

#lnx=int_1^x1/tdt#

and

#int_a^bf(t) dt = int_a^c f(t) dt + int_c^bf(t) dt #

and

If, on #[a, b]# we have #f(t)>=m#, then #int_a^b f(t)dt >=(b-a)*m#

We will look at intervals of the form: #[2^n, 2^(n+1)]#

On #[1, 2]#, we have #1/t >= 1/2#, so
#int_1^2 1/tdt >= (2-1)*1/2=1/2#
And so, #ln2 >= 1/2#

On #[2, 4]#, we have #1/t >= 1/4#, so
#int_1^4 1/tdt=int_1^2 1/tdt+int_2^4 1/tdt >= 1/2+(4-2)*1/4=1/2+1/2=1#
And, #ln 4 >= 2/2 =1#

.

On each #[2^n, 2^(n+1)]#, we have #1/t >= 1/(2^(n+1)# So the additional integral #int_(2^n)^(2^(n+1)) 1/t dt# adds more than

#(2^(n+1)-2^n) * 1/(2^(n+1)) = [2^n(2-1)] * 1/2^(n+1)=(2^n)/2^(n+1)=1/2#

And so, #ln (2^(n+1)) = int_1^(2^(n+1)) 1/t dt >= (n+1)/2#

So, as #xrarroo#, we have #int_1^x 1/t dt rarr oo#.

Since this integral is #ln x#, we have #lim_(xrarroo)lnx=oo#

May 3, 2015

The answer is #+infty#

You can prove it by reductio ad absurdum.

You know that if #x>1 ln(x)>0# so the limit must be positive.
You also know that #ln(x_2)-ln(x_1)=ln(x_2/x_1)# so if #x_2>x_1# the difference is positive, so #ln(x)# is always growing

If #lim_{x->infty}ln(x) = M in RR# you have #ln(x)< M => x < e^M#, but #x->infty# so #M# can not be in #RR#, and the limit must be #+infty#

Jul 28, 2017

For any strictly increasing function, f, if #a < b#, then #f(a) < f(b)#.
Let M be an arbitrary positive number.
Since (as others have shown), #f(x) = lnx# is strictly increasing on #(0, oo)#,
#lnx > M#
if and only if
#x > e^M#.

Since the numbers themselves increase without bound, we have shown that by making x large enough, we may make #f(x) = lnx# as large as desired.

Thus, the limit is infinite as x goes to #oo#.