Would you be so kind help me please? It's about number theory.. Thank you very much before..?

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1 Answer
May 19, 2018

#p=5, r=3# is a counterexample, but below I prove

# (p-r-1)! equiv 1 quad mod p#

using Wilson's Theorem.

Explanation:

Hmmm. Let's check #p=5, r=3.# because #(-1)^3 \ 3! = -6 = -1 mod 5 quad sqrt#

# (5-3+1)! =3! =1 mod 5 quad # WRONG

I think the correct formulation is

#(p-r-1)!equiv 1 (mod p)#

This looks like it's related to Wilson's Theorem. A positive integer #n# is a prime if and only if #(n-1) ! equiv -1 (mod n)#.

I'll give an informal justification for Wilson. For composite #n# the factorial will contain a pair of factors that multiply to #n# so the whole thing is zero so can't be #-1#.

For prime #n# we have a finite field. Multiplicative inverses in a finite field come in pairs; the only cases you're your own inverse is #a=1/a# or #a^2=1# or #a=pm 1#. So #(n-1)! = (n-1)(n-2)! = -(n-2)!# and #(n-2)!# has all the pairs of inverses, and only pairs of inverses (and a lonely factor of one, which makes no difference), so is #1# so the whole thing is #-1.#

Back to our problem.

We have #r < p # or #r le p-1 #. We can try to expand #(p-1)! =-1# with one factor #(p-r-1)!# and see what happens. Working #(mod p\ )#

# (p-1) ! = (p-1)(p-2)...(p-r) \ (p-(r+1))! #

#-1 equiv (-1)(-2)...(-r) cdot (p-r-1)! #

#-1 equiv (-1)^{r} \ r! \ (p-r-1)! #

# -1 equiv -(p-r-1)! #

# (p-r-1)! equiv 1 quad mod p#