Is f(x)=x^3 the only possible antiderivative of f(x)=3x^2? If not, why not?

1 Answer
Jan 27, 2015

No, it isn't.

If #f(x)=x^3# then the derivative will be #f'(x)=3x^2#

But the same would be true for #f(x)=x^3+1#
because the #1# would leave #0# in the derivative.

In general:
The antiderivative of #f'(x)=3x^2->f(x)=x^3+C#
(#C# being any number you choose)

This goes for all antiderivatives. You can always add #C#
(because they disappear in the other-way-around process)