Question #a5154 Calculus Limits Infinite Limits and Vertical Asymptotes 1 Answer Eddie Aug 13, 2016 #=0# Explanation: Because #-1 < cos x < 1, x in (-oo,oo)#, the numerator is always a bounded finite number so #lim_(x to oo) cosx / x = 0# Answer link Related questions How do you show that a function has a vertical asymptote? What kind of functions have vertical asymptotes? How do you find a vertical asymptote for y = sec(x)? How do you find a vertical asymptote for y = cot(x)? How do you find a vertical asymptote for y = csc(x)? How do you find a vertical asymptote for f(x) = tan(x)? How do you find a vertical asymptote for a rational function? How do you find a vertical asymptote for f(x) = ln(x)? What is a Vertical Asymptote? How do you find the vertical asymptote of a logarithmic function? See all questions in Infinite Limits and Vertical Asymptotes Impact of this question 13458 views around the world You can reuse this answer Creative Commons License