What is the derivative of #1/(sec x - tan x)#?
2 Answers
Explanation:
Note that:
#1/(secx-tanx)=1/(1/cosx-sinx/cosx)=cosx/(1-sinx)#
To differentiate this, we will use the quotient rule, which states that when we have the functions
#d/dx(f/g)=(f^'*g-f*g^')/g^2#
So here, we see that
#d/dx(cosx/(1-sinx))=((-sinx)(1-sinx)-(cosx)(-cosx))/(1-sinx)^2#
Simplifying:
#=(-sinx+sin^2x+cos^2x)/(1-sinx)^2#
Since
#=(1-sinx)/(1-sinx)^2#
#=1/(1-sinx)#
Mason has given a fine answer, here's a bit of a tricky one.
Explanation:
One of the Pythagorean trigonometric identities is
#tan^2 x + 1 = sec^2 x#
Which also gets us
#(secx-tanx)(sec x +tan x)#
(The is the same bit of algebra we use to rationalize fractions involving
Now use the differentiation rulles for these trig functions to get
Comparing answers:
# = (sinx + 1)/cos^2 x#
# = (1+sinx)/(1-sin^2 x)#
# = 1/(1-sinx)#