How do you use the binomial series to expand f(x)= 1/((1+x)^2)f(x)=1(1+x)2?

1 Answer
Apr 20, 2017

\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n(n+1)x^nn=0(1)n(n+1)xn

Explanation:

Recall (Binomial Series)

(1+x)^\alpha=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{\alpha\cdot(\alpha-1)\cdot(\alpha-2)\cdot\cdots\cdot(\alpha-n+1)}{n!}x^n(1+x)α=n=0α(α1)(α2)(αn+1)n!xn

Let us look at f(x)f(x).

f(x)=\frac{1}{(1+x)^2}=(1+x)^{-2}f(x)=1(1+x)2=(1+x)2

By Binomial Series with \alpha=-2α=2,

=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-2)\cdot(-3)\cdot(-4)\cdot\cdots\cdot(-n)\cdot(-(n+1))}{n!}x^n=n=0(2)(3)(4)(n)((n+1))n!xn

By factoring out the negative signs,

=\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{\cancel{2}\cdot\cancel{3}\cdot\cancel{4}\cdot\cdots\cdot \cancel{n}\cdot(n+1)}{1\cdot\cancel{2}\cdot\cancel{3}\cdot\cancel{4}\cdot\cdots\cdot \cancel{n}}x^n

By cleaning up,

=\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n(n+1)x^n

I hope that this was clear.