Question #682be

1 Answer
Joe K.
Oct 25, 2017

See explanation

Explanation:

So when we say integral in this case, we really mean the antiderivative. So think about the derivative of #sec(x)#. The derivative of #sec(x)# is #sec(x)tan(x)#. So when we take the antiderivative of this, it makes sense that it will end up being the thing that we had to derive to get this. I hope this explanation clears things up for you!

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