Question #682be

1 Answer
Oct 25, 2017

See explanation

Explanation:

So when we say integral in this case, we really mean the antiderivative. So think about the derivative of sec(x). The derivative of sec(x) is sec(x)tan(x). So when we take the antiderivative of this, it makes sense that it will end up being the thing that we had to derive to get this. I hope this explanation clears things up for you!