Question

Question #a448d

Answer 1

See below.

Explanation:

If a function is one to one.

One method is to show that:

`f(x)=f(y)=>x=y`

For example, we know that `y= 2x+3` is a one to one function.

So:

`2x+3=2y+3=>2x=2y=>x=y`

`y=x^2` is a many to one, so:

`f(x)=f(y)=>x=y`

`x^2=y^2` This is not one to one, since x could be a negative value and y could be positive, and vice versa. So:

`x!=y`

There may be better methods than this, but it may help.