#\lim_(n\rarr\infty)(1-4/n)^n#: convergent or divergent?

I know the answer is "converges to #1/e^4#," but I have no idea how you get there :(

1 Answer
Apr 5, 2018

Yes, the limit does converge to #e^(-4)#.

Explanation:

Instead of solving this particular case, let's do the general one; let

#L = lim_(n->oo)(1+a/n)^(bn)#.

Now, if both #a# and #b# are equal to #1#, #L = e#.

#lim_(n->oo) (1+1/n)^n = e#.

This is one of the definitions of #e#.

Now, let #t = 1/n#. While #n->oo#, #t# much approach #0#. Therefore, we have

#lim_(n->oo)(1+1/n)^n = lim_(t->0)(1+t)^(1/t)#

This new limit is still equal to #e#.

#lim_(t->0)(1+t)^(1/t) = e#.

Let's do the same with our general case.

#L = lim_(n->oo)(1+a/n)^(bn)#

Let #t = a/n#. #t# still approaches #0#, as #a# is finite.

Because #t=a/n => n = a/t#.

Our limit has become

#L = lim_(t->0)(1+t)^((ab)/t) = (lim_(t->0)(1+t)^(1/t))^(ab)#

But we know that the inner limit is #e#, therefore

#color(red)(L = e^(ab)#

#lim_(n->oo)(1+a/n)^(bn) = e^(ab)#.

In our particular case, #a = -4# and #b=1#. By plugging these into the limit, you get:

#lim_(n->oo)(1+(-4)/n)^(1*n) = e^(-4*1) = 1/e^4#.