A poker hand consisting of 5 cards, is dealt from pack of 52 cards. Find the probability of obtaining: a) 1 pair b) 2 pairs c) 3 of a kind d) 4 of a kind e) a flush f) a royal flush?

1 Answer

See below:

Explanation:

When working with the probability of poker hands, we need to know the number of ways a hand can be dealt (this is the denominator) and the numerator is the number of ways to have a certain hand.

These will be combination problems (we don't care about the order of the cards dealt):

#C_(n,k)=((n),(k))=(n!)/((k!)(n-k)!)# with #n="population", k="picks"#

First let's calculate the denominator (picking 5 random cards from a pack of 52 cards):

#C_(52,5)=((52),(5))=(52!)/((5)!(52-5)!)=(52!)/((5!)(47!))#

Let's evaluate it!

#(52xx51xxcancelcolor(orange)(50)^10xx49xxcancelcolor(red)48^2xxcancelcolor(brown)(47!))/(cancelcolor(orange)5xxcancelcolor(red)(4xx3xx2)xxcancelcolor(brown)(47!))=52xx51xx10xx49xx2=2,598,960#

Now to our numerators:

a) 1 Pair

There are 13 ordinals (Ace through King) in a standard deck of cards. We want 2 of the same ordinal (out of the 4 suits) and then the other 3 cards can't be that first ordinal, nor can we have an ordinal repeat (that would create a different hand - 2-pair or a full house).

So let's work this through:

  • we want to pick 1 ordinal from the population of 13
  • from that ordinal, we want to pick 2 cards that are available from a population of 4
  • from the remaining 12 ordinals, we pick 3
  • each one of these 3 cards can be chosen from a population of 4 suits

#((13),(1))((4),(2))((12),(3))((4),(1))^3#

#=(13!)/((1!)(12!))(4!)/((2!)(2!))(12!)/((3!)(9!))((4!)/((1!)(3!)))^3#

#=13xx6xx220xx(4)^3=1,089,240# different 1-pair hands

Giving a probability of

#1089240/2598960~~0.4226#

b) 2 pair

  • we want to pick 2 ordinals from the population of 13
  • from those ordinals, we want to pick 2 cards that are available from a population of 4 each
  • from the remaining 11 ordinals, we pick 1
  • that 1 card can be chosen from a population of 4 suits

#((13),(2))((4),(2))^2((11),(1))((4),(1))#

#78xx6^2xx11xx4=123,552# different 2-pair hands

Giving a probability of:

#123552/2598960~~0.0475#

c) 3 of a kind

  • we want to pick 1 ordinal from 13
  • we want 3 of the 4 suits in that ordinal
  • from the remaining 12 ordinals, we pick 2
  • we want 1 suit each from those 2 ordinals

#((13),(1))((4),(3))((12),(2))((4),(1))^2#

#=13xx4xx66xx4^2=54,912# different 3 of a kind hands

giving:

#54912/2598960~~0.0211#

d) 4 of a kind

  • we want to pick 1 ordinal from 13
  • we want 4 of the 4 suits in that ordinal
  • from the remaining 12 ordinals, we pick 1
  • we want 1 suit from the population of 4

#((13),(1))((4),(4))((12),(1))((4),(1))#

#=13xx1xx12xx4=624# different 4 of a kind hands

giving:

#624/2598960~~0.0002#

e) flush

  • From the 4 suits, we pick 1
  • we pick 5 ordinals of the 13 available

#((4),(1))((13),(5))#

#4xx1287=5148#

giving #5148/2598960~~0.0020#

NOTE - this is all hands that have a flush element to them, and so includes Royal and Straight flushes. We can eliminate those by first seeing that those hands are:

  • From the 4 suits, we pick 1
  • From the 13 ordinals available, we pick 5 consecutive ones. There are 10 ways to do that (AKQJ10 down to 5432A):

#((4),(1))xx10=40#

and so

#5148-40=5108#

gives

#5108/2598960~~0.0020#

f) Royal Flush

There are only 4 Royal Flushes available - AKQJ10 in each of the 4 suits.

#4/2598960~~0.000002#

For more information about poker hand probability, check out this wikipedia link:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poker_probability