If f(x) =Cosx Then what is finverse(x)?

1 Answer
iceman
May 16, 2018

See the explanation please.

Explanation:

#f(x)=cos(x)=># domain#(-oo, oo)#, range#[-1, 1]#

#y=cos(x)#

#x=cos(y)#

#y=+-cos^(-1)(x)#

#f^(-1)(x)=-cos^(-1)(x)=># domain[-1, 1], range#[-pi, 0]#

#f^(-1)(x)=cos^(-1)(x)=># domain[-1, 1], range#[0, pi]#

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