# Question #dc111

##### 2 Answers

Sep 30, 2016

1

#### Explanation:

Since g(x) is inverse of f(x), f(g(x)=x

Differentiating both sides w.r.t x, it would be

f'(g(x)) g'(x) =1

Thus for x=0, f'(g(0))g'(0)=1

Sep 30, 2016

The function is not invertible (it does not have an inverse).

#### Explanation:

We can use the result:

If

#g# is the inverse of#f# , then#g'(c) = 1/(f'(g(c))#

Therefore, if there were any such thing as an inverse of the function given, we would have