Question #43768

1 Answer
Aditya Banerjee.
Oct 11, 2017

Let's see.

Explanation:

Given that,

In #0.4# seconds, a wave completes #40# vibrations.

Hence, in #1# second, the wave would complete #rarr#

#=40/0.4# vibrations

#=100# vibrations.

Therefore, the frequency of the wave is #100Hz#. (Answer).

Hope it Helps:)

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