Can an invertible matrix have an eigenvalue equal to 0?
1 Answer
No.
A matrix is nonsingular (i.e. invertible) iff its determinant is nonzero.
To prove this, we note that to solve the eigenvalue equation
#Avecv = lambdavecv# ,
we have that
#lambdavecv - Avecv = vec0#
#=> (lambdaI - A)vecv = vec0#
and hence, for a nontrivial solution,
#|lambdaI - A| = 0# .
Let
#|0*I - A| = 0#
#|-A| = 0#
#=> (-1)^n|A| = 0#
Note that a matrix inverse can be defined as:
#A^(-1) = 1/|A| adj(A)# ,
where
Clearly,
So, if the determinant of