Can an invertible matrix have an eigenvalue equal to 0?

1 Answer
Nov 9, 2016

No.


A matrix is nonsingular (i.e. invertible) iff its determinant is nonzero.

To prove this, we note that to solve the eigenvalue equation

#Avecv = lambdavecv#,

we have that

#lambdavecv - Avecv = vec0#

#=> (lambdaI - A)vecv = vec0#

and hence, for a nontrivial solution,

#|lambdaI - A| = 0#.

Let #A# be an #NxxN# matrix. If we did have #lambda = 0#, then:

#|0*I - A| = 0#

#|-A| = 0#

#=> (-1)^n|A| = 0#

Note that a matrix inverse can be defined as:

#A^(-1) = 1/|A| adj(A)#,

where #|A|# is the determinant of #A# and #adj(A)# is the classical adjoint, or the adjugate, of #A# (the transpose of the cofactor matrix).

Clearly, #(-1)^(n) ne 0#. Thus, the evaluation of the above yields #0# iff #|A| = 0#, which would invalidate the expression for evaluating the inverse, since #1/0# is undefined.

So, if the determinant of #A# is #0#, which is the consequence of setting #lambda = 0# to solve an eigenvalue problem, then the matrix is not invertible.