Consider Hydrogen ion in a box having one dimension, then find electron probability distribution?

1 Answer
Jan 28, 2018

#psi_n^"*"(x)psi_n(x) = 2/L sin^2((npix)/L)#

These solutions are well-known and you should get to know what they look like. Here are the wave function #psi# and the probability density #psi_n^"*"psi_n# plotted:

http://slideplayer.com/slide/4905211/16/images/21/

Also, on the side, we got that #k = npi"/"L#, so since

#k = (npi)/L = sqrt((2mE)/ℏ^2)#,

it follows that the energy levels are given by:

#color(blue)(E_n) = (ℏ^2k^2)/(2mL^2) = color(blue)((ℏ^2n^2pi^2)/(2mL^2))#


DISCLAIMER: LONG ANSWER!

A hydrogen cation (presumably #""^(1) "H"^(+)#) is a neutron and proton with no potential of interaction. Thus, we set this up as a particle in a box scenario where #V = 0#.

The Hamiltonian for such a scenario is:

#hatH = hatK + cancel(hatV)^(0)#

#= -ℏ^2/(2m) (del^2)/(delx^2)#

The box looks like:

http://www.nyu.edu/

with boundary conditions #psi(0) = psi(L) = 0#, and

#V = {(0, x in (0,L)),(oo, x <= 0),(,x >= L):}#

The Schrodinger equation is then:

#hatHpsi = Epsi#

#=> -ℏ^2/(2m) (d^2psi)/(dx^2) = Epsi#

Rearrange to the standard form:

#(d^2psi)/(dx^2) + (2mE)/(ℏ^2)psi = 0#

Often we set the substitution #k = sqrt(2mE//ℏ^2)#, so

#(d^2psi)/(dx^2) + k^2psi = 0#

The general solution to this is assumed to be

#psi = e^(rx)#

and upon inserting it, we obtain the auxiliary equation:

#r^2 e^(rx) + k^2 e^(rx) = 0#

In the well, #e^(rx) ne 0# so that the particle exists. Thus,

#r = ik#

and we write a linear combination for #psi#:

#psi = c_1e^(ikx) + c_2e^(-ikx)#

Using Euler's formula, we rewrite this in terms of real trig functions.

#psi = c_1(cos(kx) + isin(kx)) + c_2(cos(kx) - isin(kx))#

#= (c_1 + c_2)cos(kx) + (ic_1 - ic_2)sin(kx)#

Define #A = c_1 + c_2# and #B = ic_1 - ic_2#, because these are arbitrary constants. Therefore:

#psi = Acos(kx) + Bsin(kx)#

The boundary conditions state that since the potential goes to #oo# at #x = 0,L#, it follows that #psi(0) = psi(L) = 0#:

#Acos(kcdot0) + Bsin(kcdot0) = Acos(kL) + Bsin(kL) = 0#

But since #sin(0) = 0# and #cos(0) = 1#, it follows that #A = 0#. Furthermore, since #A = 0#, we have:

#Bsin(kL) = 0#

And this is only when #kL = npi#, where #n = 1, 2, 3, . . . #. (We could take negative #n#, but that would give a linearly dependent solution.)

Thus, since #k = (npi)/L#, the wave function becomes:

#psi_n(x) = Bsin((npix)/L)#

And the probability distribution is then:

#psi_n^"*"(x)psi_n(x) = B^2 sin^2((npix)/L)#

A well-behaved wave function is normalized in its boundaries, so we say that

#int_(0)^(L) psi_n^"*"psi_ndx = 1#

From this we get the normalization constant.

#1 = B^2 int_(0)^(L) sin^2((npix)/L)dx#

Consider the following argument.

If #sin^2u + cos^2u = 1#, then integrating #sin^2u + cos^2u# gives #L# for the area under the curve, with height #1# and length #L#, regardless of what #u# is.

The identities #sin^2u = 1/2(1-cos(2u))# and #cos^2u = 1/2(1+cos(2u))# show that #sin^2u# contributes to half the area under the curve.

Therefore, #int_(0)^(L) sin^2udu = L/2#, and #B = sqrt(2/L)#. This means

#color(blue)(psi_n^"*"(x)psi_n(x) = "Probability Distribution")#

#= color(blue)(2/L sin^2((npix)/L))#