How do you determine whether the function f(x)=1/x^2f(x)=1x2 has an inverse and if it does, how do you find the inverse function?

1 Answer
Nov 29, 2017

Simply put, the graph of f(x) =1/x^2f(x)=1x2 has an inverse, but the inverse is not a function. In order to find the inverse of any function, interchange the xx and yy values and then solve for yy.

Explanation:

In order to determine an equation of the inverse of f(x) =1/x^2f(x)=1x2, interchange the xx and yy values and then solve for yy.

y=1/x^2y=1x2
x=1/y^2x=1y2
y^2=1/xy2=1x
y=+-sqrt(1/x)y=±1x

This is the graph of f^-1(x) = +-sqrt(1/x)f1(x)=±1x.
graph{x=1/y^2 [-10, 10, -5, 5]}

The inverse is not a function because it does not pass the vertical line test. However, there are two methods to restrict the domain of f(x)f(x) so that its inverse is a function.

Method #1:

Restrict the domain of f(x)=1/x^2f(x)=1x2 to x>=0x0. Then, the range of the inverse is y>=0y0. Since the inverse passes the vertical line test, it represents a function.

graph{y=sqrt(1/x) [-10, 10, -5, 5]}

Method #2:

Restrict the domain of f(x)=1/x^2f(x)=1x2 to x<=0x0. Then, the range of the inverse is y<=0y0. Since the inverse passes the vertical line test, it represents a function.

graph{y=-sqrt(1/x) [-10, 10, -5, 5]}