How do you determine whether the function f(x)=x^4 has an inverse and if it does, how do you find the inverse function?

1 Answer
Oct 29, 2017

With the (implicit) domain RR, f(x) is not one to one, so its inverse is not a function. If we restrict the domain of f(x) then we can define an inverse function.

Explanation:

In order to have an inverse function, a function must be one to one.

In the case of f(x) = x^4 we find that f(1) = f(-1) = 1. So f(x) is not one to one on its implicit domain RR.

If we restrict the domain of f(x) to [0, oo) then it does have an inverse function, namely:

f^(-1)(y) = root(4)(y)

Some more details...

In general, if you want to find the inverse of a function f(x) then set y = f(x) and attempt to solve for x.

In our example, put:

y = f(x) = x^4

Then taking the square root of both ends, allowing for both possible signs we find:

+-sqrt(y) = x^2

Assuming that we are only interested in real values of x, we require the left hand side to be non-negative, so assume the non-negative square root.

Then take the square root of both sides again to get:

+-sqrt(sqrt(y)) = x

That is:

x = +-sqrt(sqrt(y)) = +-root(4)(y)

Note that this does not give us a unique value of x in terms of y.

So the inverse function is not defined, unless we have a restriction such as x >= 0, i.e. restrict the domain of f(x) to be [0, oo).